My question involves a foreclosure in the State of: Florida.
In october 2008 I signed a (1) year lease to rent a home in florida, and on November 1st 2008 my family and I moved in. However on November 26th 2008 we were served with foreclosure paperwork, because the property owner had defaulted on their mortgage payments. We were given (20) days to respond to the complaint, we responded but the property owner did not.
After further research we found out that the property had not been occupied for (3) months prior to us signing the lease in October 2008, and moving in on November 1st 2008.
After further review of the forclosure paperwork we found that the property owner defaulted on the mortgage as of August 1st 2008.
My questions are as follows:
1. Since the property owner had already defaulted on the mortgage payments (3) month prior to us signing our lease; was our lease valid? and if so, why?
2. Did the property owner commit fraud by letting us sign the lease?
3. Can we go after the property owner for damages?