Well, since the only element of adverse posession law that isn't necessary for a successful court order of prescriptive easement, I don't see how my neighbor can have a successful claim for either one.

My neighbor's attorney claims that her septic leech field was placed in the parcel I wish to buy by the man who built her home, the same landowner who is trying to sell me the parcel now.

It would seem to me that if the septic field was put there by the owner of the land that there would be no claim to either adverse possession or prescriptive easement because there was no hostile element to the land's usage. Permission to use the land for a leech field is implicit since it was placed there by the landowner, not the person seeking easement or posession.

Thoughts?