My question involves a condominium located in the State of Maryland.
I recently purchased my first home, a condo in Maryland.
I have received a bill for $400 for repair work that was done before I actually took title. All of my requests for more information on why I am to pay rather than why the original owner was not billed have not been responded to except to state that "I am responsible as the current owner" by the property manager, who only communicates via email.
I am very frustrated by this; my emails to the property manager have been polite and respectful and I have put a lot of time into being as clear as possible.
The Bylaws are written in a way that is not clear to a regular person, one section seems to indicate that I shouldn't have been sent the bill, "Priority of Lien, it states that the "mortgagee who takes title by virtue of foreclosure of a mortgage, or by deed or assignment in lieu of foreclosure of a mortgage, or any purchaser at a foreclosure sale, will take the Unit free of any claims for unpaid assessments and charges by the Council against the Unit which accrue prior to the time such mortgage or purchaser takes title to the Unit."
But the property manager states that that section pertains to the lender: which means that the lender for the loan can not include that repair work bill in the loan? Is that what that means?
I feel like I'm getting ripped off as I believe that this repair should have been included at closing for the original owner to pay. What am I missing? It seems to me that this is as if I had purchased a stereo and now have received a bill to pay for repair work that was done to fix the cassette deck.
What are my options? Do you have a suggestion on where I can go to find out my rights?
Thanks in advance.

