I'm trying to understand my position here . . . There is no language ("in perpetuity", etc) in the deed to make this easement survive a subsequent deed for the original grantor.
He was not involved in the transaction between myself and the second owner. His name is no longer on the deed. How can the original owner have any rights to the easement in a deed in which he was not involved?
I understand jk's point that according to the deed, the grantor is also the grantee, because he is granting it to himself. My reading is that the second owner is now the grantor and grantee. Does that make sense?

