My question involves real estate located in the State of: michigan
ok here goes. my girlfriend wanted to reside with me and she was pregnant at the time so i offered her to reside with me in a trailer on some property i had just recently bought but on terms with family and friends. she refused stating she grew up in a trailer and wouldnt live in one. (i took loss on the trailer and property completely to satisfy her) she asked me if i would be willing to buy a house with her. after concideration of the offer to buying a house together we discussed our relationship our finances and what we must agree on to make it work. we decided it would take both our incomes to own a house. we also decided the house would be a 50-50 investment belong to both of us and we would both cover half the expensess. upon agreement to these things we went shopping. we bought a house , both of us where on the mortgage because credit wouldnt allow just one of us on it. this was good anyhow because it made our verbal a bit more binding. a year later we refinanced with a different company for a better rate. my now fiances credit had dropped and we had a bit of difficulty doing the refinance but we succeeded and once again both our names where on the new mortgage. a year later we decide to get an equity loan so we had a little extra cash for ourselves and to pay some bills. at this time my fiances credit had dropped enough that the company suggested the only way to get it would be without her name on the loan this time. we discussed this and decided our verbal agreement was good , after all we had stuck to it for 2 years now. we re-iterated our terms even though she wasnt on the mortgage this time around the house belongs to both of us 50-50 and the costs would be shared the same way. we also felt safe with this because we had decided to get married the next febuary or march and marriage would solve any issues with ownership. so we got the equity loan continued sharing the costs and benifits of our home. 1 month to go untill our marraige and she decides she no longer wants the financial burden we have been going through due to cut backs at work and decides to jet out on me and my son and our daughter. she tells me she doesnt want the house now and the mortgage is my problem now after all her name is no longer on it. what recourse do i have? can i sell the house and sue her for half the loss? we had a verbal agreement. there was an offer made by her to purchase the house, i accepted the offer, and the concideration was the house for both of us and our family. so by all means we not only had a verbal agreement but the original mortgage contracts prove the agreement. what is my line of action at this point? what recourse do i have?