Our original libel laws dates back the the 19th Century. Times change,and the amounts paid out in damages have fallen considerably in recent years. Does this mean that there should still be a place for defamation actions in our courts?
Our original libel laws dates back the the 19th Century. Times change,and the amounts paid out in damages have fallen considerably in recent years. Does this mean that there should still be a place for defamation actions in our courts?
What does one have to do with the other?
Because homework questions are written to be intentionally broad.