We were in agreement with only the property and financial parts as considerations to be dealt with, so the divorce was done pro-se and no attorney was involved. The paperwork filed with the court did not specify any time issues, only that each party would get 50% of the profit upon the sale of the house. There was no order stating who would reside in the family house, only that on the original petition filed with the court, it shows that I had been living in the house and that it is documented as being my residence.

On another point, if no agreement can be made regarding this, is there anything I can do to make sure my spouse doesn't try to move back into the family home?

Thank you for your input.