My question involves the Fourth Amendment of US Constitution.
The Fourth Amendment gives a person a constitutional right of privacy, in his home office or other effects, and as later interpreted by the Supreme Court to include wiretapping. All this, of course, in absence of a warrant. A warrant can be issued by a magistrate after a showing of probable cause, and has to be very particular as to who, where and what is to be searched or seized.
My question is, in a case where a warrant to tap "Doe's" lines was issued, only his rights were thereby waived, the warrant doesn't waive the rights of the other parties to the conversations, (unless the names of these people were listed in the warrant), if so doesn't this make every warranted wiretap unconstitutional on part of the unnamed parties to the conversations?
(If you believe this question belongs in a different forum please advise.)

