I thought a “no fault” divorce had to be agreed upon by both of us to be applicable. I’m not suggesting she be forced to stay married to me if she doesn’t want to but that doesn’t mean I want her to leave. I was asking about the methoda she had for leaving.
Marriage is a contract, and two people can agree to end a contract anytime they want to. But when someone breaks a contract for selfish reasons, diregarding the effect it has on others, you can sue them for damages just as you can sue someone for divorce if they break your trust. If they don’t break the contract, and you still want out because you see a better opportunity or for any reason AFTER you commit it to writing, generally, you can’t just void it without the other person’s permission and still receive the same benefits of it continuing for you, while not holding up your own commitment to them..
My question is not “can I force her to stay married to me….” But instead, “is she entitled to the benefits of divorce without any breach of contract by me, since she has refused any ATTEMPT any reconciliation and has no complaint against me ?”. I thought divorce had to meet specific conditions, (insanity, irreconcilable differences) ? If I’m not insane, and she won’t attempt any counseling whatsoever, and I won’t agree to a no fault if she insists our property is split 50-50, can she still GET half our property through divorce or can I get more than that because of her lack of commitment to me ?

