I have been married for 35 years, and living separated for the last 9 or those years. My wife filed for a divorce and she/I disagree on the date of separation. Much has happened financially since we separated and the date that is determined as the "date of separation" could materially affect the distribution of the joint assets.

I understand that property acquired during marriage, including income earned by a spouse, is presumed to be marital property. So defining the date that the marriage is no longer a mariage will determine what my wife and I jointly own or not, with or without a Quit Claim deed, etc., via the transmutation of assets using commingled funds.

What is the criterion that defines the date when the commingling of funds stops affecting the marital property definition in a community property state?

Is it when the marital bed is broken, when the divorce is filed/served, when the divorce is final, when one of the partners moves out of the home, when the joint checking/savings accounts are functionally separated via all income/expenses from one partner being essentially separate from the others’, or when an arbitrary date is defined by either party and mutually agreed upon, or when the Judge determines an arbitrary date, etc.?