I recently purchased a bakery in Illinois, giving check for the R/E , a 5-year note for equipment and check for supplies on hand. At closing, at the seller's attorney's office, once the R/E transaction was completed and before the equipment note was signed, we verbally discussed several aspects of the sale of the bakery. This included the use of the former name, the scheduling of payments of the note, payments to the seller for customers' accounts receivables before the sale, and payments made to the seller after the sale that were mine, and an agreement to not compete. The seller had purchased a bakery operation in Kentucky and left the next day to assume those operations.
However, two months later the seller returned to the local area, got a job with a supermarket chain and started producing and promoting his product using his title as former owner and the bakery name. In addition, he has not remitted to me invoices paid to him after the sale of the bakery, and he has not responded to notices that he has violated our agreement and is in breach of contract. I intend to sue him for such. My wife and the realator were both present besides myself at closing and know the details of our verbal agreement(s).
Questions: 1)What are the chances of judgement in my favor and what law covers verbal assurances surrounding signed insturments? 2)If I receive judgement in my favor and can stop him from competing and get my invoice payments can I also sue for damages - i.e. lost business because of illegal competition? 3) Is the note voidable at my option? 4) What are the consequesces of verbal assurances/guarantees surrounding signed instruments - does the UCC cover/govern that?
This one's kinda corrugated, so sorry for the space warp. I would really appreciate your guidance/resource in this matter.

