I was married to a Costa Rican who later got US citizenship. She returned to her country 15 years ago and I divorced her. My X left me with all her debts and never returned to the US. I owned a property in Costa Rica and it was in my name. I said in the divorce that I would give her 1/2 the profit over what I had invested. My lawyer advised against this, but I wanted to give something out of feeling sorry for her. My x agreed to sell the lot and after 2 years had not done so. I sent money for taxes and up keep. She convinced me to sell it to her at my cost because "it would never sell" according to her. Just when I agreed to that, I got a call from a friend in my X's town in Costa Rica telling me that there were two buyers for my lot. The result was that I sold it, but never gave the x 1/2 the profit because she was trying to cheat me out of all of it. The question is am I still held to the divorce decree of 15 years ago or can I change it in light of what occurred? Can I be held legally if I travel to Costa Rica? Montana