In my recent divorce my husband of three years demanded his last name back though we had an infant. I would like my daughter to have both our last names though I know he will not consent. We have currently 50% shared parental responsibilty. What is the precedent for asking the court for my child's name to be changed to both of our names even though he will not consent? I think it is in her interest. I don't care what order or hyphens. I'm considering asking my attorney to add this to current motion to enforce our settlement agreement.
Thank you.

