I live in Missouri.
I had bought a house and 3 years later got married. After 4 weeks the guy turned out to be a monster (and I turned out to be 4 weeks pregnant). I wanted to sell the house so I could pay off some debt and deal with not being able to work due to a very difficult pregnancy.
I was told by the real estate agents that I could not sell the house without my husbands signature EVEN THOUGH I had it long before marrying him.
I was told be an attorney that it was considered SEPERATE property since I owned it before marrying.
(I never did add his name to the deed and the house is still in my maiden name)
Can anyone clarify this for me?????
Also, if I cannot buy or sell real estate without his signature will a "quit claim" take care of this?
If so what do I need to do. I bought the form just in case, I just don't understand how they work and the verbage ie. grantee vs grantor etc.