German national (the husband) filed for divorce in Germany July 2003....uncontested and unattended by his American wife, residing back in CA. This man claimed that the German Court determined that he was not a parent to the child born by his estranged wife in CA. in 12/2000. As the child resided and was born in CA.......Was there legal jurisdiction to disestablish paternity, by a German court.....when under CA. law the statute of (2 years since the child's birth) had passed to disestablish paternity....even though the mother had not named the child after the husband or put his name on the birth certificate, as the law required.
She claimed she was single and no other man was or has been established as a legal father.......she used a sperm donor.
The mother has not filed the German Court decree in CA........
is this interpreted as her not consenting to the German decree.......how does it affect paternity ?