Me and my ex-wife bought a car together while we were married. She put down the down payment and I opened the loan account under my name. Well, a year later, we go to court to get a divorce. During the divorce process she wants the car, so I sign the title over to her in court, in front of her attorney and we each get a copy of the title transfer.
Three months later, the car is repossessed and I get a letter stating that I owe the amount and it's on my credit. Did I have to sign the loan over too? Can you sign an automobile title over to someone and not the loan even though money is still owed on it? I don't understand.