Quote Quoting budwad
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I am not going to argue the point. I gave you my opinion that your SOL runs for 15 years from the date that the state transferred the land to your buyer A. You should now get an opinion from an attorney.
I don't know what part of the statute you are not reading correctly, but you even quoted the statute yourself:

MCL 600.5801(2)
(2) When the defendant (purchaser "A")
claims title (received his deed to the property)
under some deed made by an officer of this state or of the United States (received his deed from the county)
who is authorized to make deeds upon the sale of lands for taxes assessed and levied within this state (because the county is allowed by law to foreclose properties for nonpayment of property taxes)
the period of limitation is 10 years. (the statute of limitations is 10 years; You have 10 years in which to go to court to get possession of the property; After that 10 years, you no longer have legal right to gain legal possession of the property.)


Quote Quoting budwad
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You should now get an opinion from an attorney.
My position "is" the opinion of an attorney.... Ironically, it's the statement from one of the members of corporation counsel - the department within the county seat which litigates the annual tax foreclosures of several thousand (sadly) tax delinquent properties every year. We weren't debating that point; it seems so basic and clear. We were discussing a different element of the tax foreclosure process and she just happened to mention the 10 year SOL.

"Even though there is a statute of limitations of 10 years for these properties sold at auction, that's still too many years ... it 'is' a big problem ... by the time 10 years have passed a lot of those houses are falling over or somebody has vandalized them..." [approximate quote - regarding the "reverter clause" which the county started printing on the deeds that they issue starting in 2011... but for some reason it was 'not' printed on the deed that purchaser "A" received for this property when he received that deed in 2011. Likely, we theorized, it was not on the deed because his 'actual' purchase was through the "2010" tax auction. But, because the reverter clause was not printed on the deed that purchaser "A" received in 2011, the county could not do anything about the property in 'that' regard.]