Right, I don't know that there is a truly bright line rule of law yet set on that in this situation. Are you the homeowner that had the property taken for failure to pay the real estate taxes and simply stayed there after the tax sale? If so then one of the things that you'll want to look into is exactly when your right to possession of the property ceased. You'd still have the right to possession at least through the redemption period since if you redeem the property there is no transfer of title to the property. But do you still have a right to possession for some period after that, too? The reason that matters is that while you have the right to possession of the property the adverse possession clock doesn't start to run. You are only adversely possessing the property if you are on the property without the right to be there.

