
Quoting
latigo
Curiously how did you arrive at your circuitous concept that a lease that terminates by its own language (here in January) only terminates in January if the occupants "give proper written notice to terminate the lease" in January?
Are you saying that a written lease agreement cannot be self-acting with respect to the agreed period of occupation? And should the lessee fail to give notice to terminate the lease at the end of its stated term that the lease continues in perpetuity? If not, then what are you trying to say?
Also why, if not in the capacity as a surety rather than as a co-tenant, do you single out the OP as having the responsibility of getting the daughter and her boyfriend to give proper written notice, etc., etc.?
It seems that the legal issue here has escaped your notice and likely your comprehension.