Then why this obvious anomaly in your original post?

"When WE bought OUR house 16 years ago, THE DEED WAS PUT IN BOTH OF OUR NAMES."

Did you suddenly remember the subsequent quitclaim deed transaction? Or is it more likely that you conveniently misrepresent the nature of the acquisition of the property to hide the fact that the mortgagee would not have loaned the purchase money with you on the title?

Fini!