My question involves criminal law for the state of: Kentucky
I am a victim of sexual assault, and I did go the legal route and filed with the police. I did my research on the laws of my state, and I am fully aware the sodomy in the third degree has to do with deviate sexual intercourse.
It becomes questionable when the simple fact is: I was assaulted not anally, not orally, but vaginally.
I found that sexual misconduct was a more appropriate charge for my case, but the lawyer claimed otherwise. I sought out a second opinion later on from the lawyer that was a district attorney rather than a county attorney, only to be told I couldn’t even speak to the district attorney.
Months after filing, I still find myself angry at not receiving any justification or true answers as to why this would be better classified as sodomy in the third degree rather than any other charge that actually includes vaginal assault.
Can someone help clarify this for me?