My question involves criminal law for the state of: Florida
Robert Kraft and others were recently charged with solicitation of prostitution in a prostitution sting in south Florida. While I don't know the precise details, I can go by what I've heard through the news media.
Kraft is alleged to have entered an establishment which from all outward appearances is a massage spa (or parlor). Kraft allegedly went inside the lobby area and paid an amount of somewhere from $59 to $79 at the reception area. He was then led to a room where a woman came in and stimulated his genitals. He then gave the woman some money and left the premises.
I could be wrong, but it doesn't seem like he solicited prostitution. If he was paying for a massage, and they instead provided stimulation of his genitals - without him ever asking for anything special - after which he gave them money, how does that constitute solicitation of anything? What if a house cleaner comes to your house. You pay her $100 in advance to clean your house and instead of cleaning your house - without you ever asking for anything special - she stimulates your genitals, after which you give her another $100. Doesn't there have to be a clear request of sex in exchange for money for it to constitute solicitation?
In another thread in this forum, someone said "Entrapment is where the police or an agent of the state induced a person to commit a crime they wouldn’t have otherwise done." If the police had enough to get a court order to install cameras inside the spa, then wouldn't that be enough for them to have the authority as well as the duty to at least temporarily shut the place down? So by not shutting it down when they had sufficient reason and duty to do so, haven't they committed entrapment?
When one enters an establishment of that type, wouldn't there be a reasonable expectation of privacy? Is it actually legal for the police to place cameras inside a place of that type without posting a notice? It's a private place.
Finally, if a third party forces a woman to have sex with a man against her will, the man is not told she is being forced and she acts as if it is consensual, how could the man she has sex with be charged with having non-consensual sex?