I'll try to make a long story short. On Feb. 28, I was awarded the home previously owned by my husband and I, his half of any equity to be considered in lieu of child support, since he is serving a 15 year prison sentence for aggravated assault (I was the victim). My attorney assured me the divorce decree would serve as adequate documentation that I now own the house. I went to the superior court clerk and made sure they had it. When the deed to my house is viewed, the divorce decree is attached-I have verified this.
I'm trying to get the house listed for sale and the service I'm using is requesting to see a new title with just my name on it. The superior court clerk's office says the divorce decree should be enough...and I have provided it to the service.
so now what? was my attorney in error? or is the mls service just being picky?
thank you to anyone who can help!