My question involves labor and employment law for the state of: Connecticut
Under what circumstance(s) would double indemnity be considered in payment of past-due wages?
An employer has been bouncing checks and not paying employees on time, etc. That is the only information I have that is certain.
I have been told by a former employee that he is awaiting payment of *double* the amount owed in past-due wages. For certain reasons I cannot ask that person why, so I thought I'd ask here.
Thanks for reading!

