As we all saw in the OJ Simpson case, a pension (and possibly a 401K) is untouchable.
When a person trades his injury for a $1M, that money sitting in an acct is essentially his right arm in the form of cash. How could a person be forced to give up his personal injury money to settle a debt?
My wife recently received $35K for a workman's comp personal injury claim and my EA says it was all non-taxable.
I cannot see how any of your personal injury money could be seized during a bankruptcy. Well, maybe the past and future lost earnings of that money could be seized because that is income compensation, not personal injury compensation.
Sure, I don't sound like I know the law, but you guys don't sound like you know for sure either.