Thanks, Aaron - and Mr. KIA. So when I start paying rent as of the 1st, does the lack of a rental agreement beyond the "original" verbal agreement, classify me/us as tenants "for a specified time"?
On the one hand, it sounds like their attorney is correct; on the other, it also sounds (to us) like there is a degree of implied threat, since they are not following the landlord-tenant laws apparently. I am not looking for some "scam loophole," but realize that specifically defining correctly my tenancy type provides the entire foundation of my(our) rights, and his obligations.

