Ok, while my first post was answered, there IS a secondary issue that falls under THIS forum.
In early 2004, my wife accepted the 'deal' offered by her father, to move our family onto his property, free of charge, and to live here until his eventual death, at which time we would gain the property.
1st Question: Does this in fact constitute a "tenancy for specified time"? (There was never a rental agreement, it was purely verbal.)
"In all cases where premises are rented for a specified time, by express or implied contract, the tenancy shall be deemed terminated at the end of such specified time."
RCW 59.04.030
ie, is this technically then, a "tenancy" where the "specified time" is my father in law's lifetime?

