My question involves real estate located in the State of: CA
When I married my previous husband, he owned a home with his ex-wife (their divorce papers say "reserved" in terms of division of the house). After a couple years, she couldn't make the mortgage payments so she wanted to refinance under some sort of state program. She convinced him that it could only happen if he quit claimed the deed to her, but remained on the mortgage. At my insistance, he entered into a notarized agreement with her that she would make all payments, and when the last of their two children turned 18, she would either refinance in her name or he had first right of refusal to take it.
He died before the youngest turned 18 and so she now has the house, but his name has remained on the mortgage for 4 years. There was a second mortgage - some sort of loan for $20,000 that they are both still on as well, that is due now because of the refinance she did. I've gotten a bunch of letters about it. I divorced him right before he died, so I don't think I am liable for any of this, but was wondering whether his kids can get anything from the house if I provide them with the notarized agreement.