My question involves a marriage in the state of: California
I own stock from a company acquired prior to marriage. No pre-nup. Considering selling my stock now and looking to buy other stocks and possibly day trade them.
I understand the definitions of active and passive appreciation, but as it relates to stocks it seems to be grey and open to interpretation. Where "market forces" determine if active or passive. I guess my question is at what point is it "market forces"? Generally it's always market forces. If I buy and hold for a year does that make it passive appreciation? What if I trade 100 times (buy stock and sell stock) a year does the appreciation remain passive? Is it 50 times per year? Or 10?