I live in Texas and am divorced. During my marriage I financed a home in my name only because my ex-husband's credit score was very low and he had quite a bit of debt at the time. Although his name was not on the mortgage note, his name was put on the deed. After our divorce, he would not sign the quit claim deed and I am interested in purchasing another home in the near future. Can I just provide the divorce decree records showing that I have sole ownership of the house. His name was never on the mortgage note and I am solely responsible for the debt. Any advice would be greatly appreciated.