Why is it that when it is obvious that a litigant has purgered himself or is evident of guilt in a court room that the judge does not hold the litigant responsible???
thanks Lynn
Why is it that when it is obvious that a litigant has purgered himself or is evident of guilt in a court room that the judge does not hold the litigant responsible???
thanks Lynn
Can you be more specific? And when you say "is evident of guilt in a court room", what do you mean?