I have aerial photos that show the "road" has been relocated several times prior and after the court ruling. the genesis of this case was a property owner was preventing other property owners from accessing the main road via his property. he accused them of trespass. they took him to court, the judge ruled against him, stating no trespass, and also ruled that the "road" was "open to the public for travel". my thought is that this blanket inclusion of other property owners without their knowledge or participation was a bit far reaching.
would this be an eminent domain situation as private property was taken for public use? I have approached the county about this but they disavow any responsibility for maintenance or upkeep claiming it is a private road. however it is private in ownership only, as I nor any of the other property owners can control who uses it.
I cannot believe in this day, that a private property owner can be forced, thru a court case he had no opportunity to be represented in, to give up private property & private property rights without compensation.

