An employee has been working for a company for almost two years. The employee has been paid throughout that time a salary based upon 40 hours per week. The employee's most recent paycheck was less than it usually is, and when he asked about why he was told that his employer had only submitted 70 hours for the prior two weeks. When he asked his employer for an explanation, the employer said that he's an at-will employee and thus can be changed from salaried to hourly without notice. Is that correct?

