Here it goes, I left my martial home to my abusive husband in Sept 2006. In the separation agreement it said that I would leave the home..(I did not want the home, he was going nuts..etc), but in the division of martial property it states, "Wife property rights to the marital home, house #...etc, the wife agrees to to receive a lump sum of $$$$$$. It is the intent of this agreement that the wife will have no obligation to sign any deeds to the foregoing until such time that the $$$$$$ is delivered to her."
Now in a Sept 2007 when we can file for a divorce, does he have to hold up his end of the bargain and pay me then? I mean it says that I would give him the house for a lump sum and would not sign it over to him. When does he have to fulfill his end of this agreement? Can he divorce without fulfilling it and hold on to the house forever?

