A couple divorced and their judgment provided that the wife would remain in the marital home, and that the equity in the home would be divided when the home was sold. The wife refinanced the home after divorce. Several years later, she was unable to afford the mortgage and the lender agreed to a short sale. The home was sold, and the lender wrote off the deficiency.
Now the ex-husband is claiming that he is entitled to half of the equity in the home. There was no equity at the time of sale, as evidenced by the short sale. Does he have a claim to any money?

