
Quoting
larbec
My question involves court procedures for the state of: Texas
How can any Judge or Prosecuting attorney put anyone on trial or hear a case "without" their consent knowing that they do not have jurisdiction in the first place? The courts and all the officials operate off of Maritime and Admiralty Law NOT common Law. Well, we are not in Britain or in the middle of the sea nor in a Military setting so will someone , anyone please explain what gives them the right to order us to do anything? Look at he flags, they are trimmed in Gold. The most important one from a constitutional perspective is the claim that that flag with fringe is a flag that indicates admiralty law is in effect wherever that flag is displayed, such as in a court room. I won't get into the all CAPS STRAWMAN name unless we need to and it has its place in the law to but its definitely not in civil hearing only in a Commerce hearing
Basically the courts have no Jurisdiction over us at all. I am not asking as a joke or to get out of any trouble. I have no record nor do i want one but I am fed up with how this country is going and how we lost OUR power and how THEY think they have power over us and it should be the other way around. Now, I am not saying if you have committed murder (which is a crime) you should not be in court but for traffic violations and other frivolous charges ..... PLEASE give e a break
Your all thoughts please from a "Lawful" perspective