
Quoting
larbec
I will try to break my questions down pc by pc. When and If the bank sells your note to another and You now owe paying that institituion for your loan. Why should you still owe for your home? The new company already paid that debt. Where I m going with this is .... there really is no money exchanged only a promissory note. The bank gets their funds from the federal Reserve .... is this correct? So the bank has been paid in full for your mortgage. Now, I am paying the bank, the Federal Reserve paid the bank and NOW another institution has paid the bank ...... where is my relief and how is this either legal or lawful and there is a difference.
Thanks for educating me and all reading