Hi All,
I bought a piece of undeveloped land in NM that was originally part of a single lot that was divided into three sublots and had easments through my property specified for two other undeveloped sublot land owners. My lot has a private drive that goes to the other two properties and also runs about 5 feet into an adjacent lot.
Recently that adjacent lot (not one of the two sublots) was sold and the purchaser had a survey done which says he has easements across my property as recorded in county clerk's office (it states book and page numbers for his and my deeds). This came as a surprise out of the blue to me since my deed has no mention of this easement.
After speaking with the county assessor's office there is no mention of this easement in either of our deeds or recorded anywhere else that they can find. Additionally I spoke with the previous owner of my lot to see if there was an easement agreement and he said there was never any agreement to have an easement to this other property.
My driveway has only been in existence for about 5 years and has not as of yet been used extensively by the adjacent lot. The adjacent lot also has 450ft of frontage on the public road so they aren't landlocked. I think, they want to use my driveway because it takes them to the top of their lot (and saves them the expense of cutting their own driveway).
So the question is can I block access for this adjacent lot if I choose? Or at least have the upper hand in negotiating for some reasonable compensation for specifically granting an easement to the adjacent lot?
Thanks!

