A married couple got into financial trouble, and got help from the husband's parents. The parents took title to the couple's home, then refinanced the home. The couple did not receive any money, and they have been paying the mortgage payments. It was their understanding that when the mortgage was paid off, or the couple's credit recovered to the point that they, they could get title back in their names.
Several years later, the couple is divorcing. The man claims that his parents own the home, and that they are just tenants. He says that the wife gets no credit for the money she has paid into the home. Is that correct?