A curious question
How would res judicata apply when involving a state v. Fed statute in a civil matter when a person can be tried under both federal and state laws independently for the same action and it not be considered double jeopardy? This would seem to be a reversal of what are the normal relaxation of protections within civil law compared to criminal law we have normally.
In other words; why doesn't the dual sovereignity doctrine apply to civil law as it does to criminal law?

