My question involves real estate located in the State of: California
Hey everyone,
My grandfather passed in 2002 and left behind 289 Acres in Central California in which he owned a 50% interest with a business partner. We have determined that there was no Joint tenancy and his name still remains on the deed.
In 2007, my grandfathers wife petitioned for probate with a forged will. My Mother then contested and after investigation into the validity of the will, my grandfathers wife basically gave up the probate process and disappeared. It is still an open case in the superior courts archives.
Also in 2007, my mother visted the property to take a look at it. It is just land with no houses or structures on it. At that time, she paid the 5 years back taxes on the property and since 2007, she has made every tax payment on time. She is in communication with the other co-owner of the property.
So as far as I understand, she has satisfied the property tax requirement for Adverse Possession. My question is, is it possible to prove that she satisfies the other 4 requirements in the law? Possession under claim of right; Actual, Open, Notorious occupation; adverse and hostile possession; and continuous possession for 5 years. Since its not feasible to actually live on the land, how else can it be occupied?
The goal here is for my mother to be able to get the title to my grandfathers 50% interest in the property without involving my grandfathers wife, whom we cannot locate nor do we feel is deserving of a share.
Thank you for any advice you can offer

