Obviously I know that I could possibly resolve this through small claims court. That is not what I am trying to learn from this post. I am trying to learn if there is a legal precedent establishing that a roommate not signed onto a lease will be obligated to pay the full amount stipulated within our binding verbal agreement. The proof I have of the verbal agreement consists of text messages which make mention of him living in the apartment. Also, I have multiple friends who witnessed that the third roommate did in fact move into the apartment and was living there for quite some time, something which could not happen if there was not a verbal agreement already in place. I do not have or know of the resources to research a legal precedent. Therefore, if someone could provide me with a direct answer to my question or provide me with clear resources, it would be greatly appreciated!

