My question involves a marriage in the state of: California
Husband and a partner purchased a home in California intended for rental property. Husband decided to live in the home and pay the mortgage until they could rent it. Six months we were married that same year and both lived in the home together for five months. He decided we would relocate to another state and we rented the property. He put the home on the market before we separated, he moved back to California asked for a divorce and sold the home to the tenants at a profit. Is his interest in this home community property because we lived in the home during our marriage?

