
Quoting
Mr. Knowitall
True to a point, but that does not mean that he'll have any claim against the property of the spouse with whom he had no dealings.
As the post indicates, it was the wife who made the deal for the tickets and the deal occurred during the parties' separation. Also, the deal was not a trade, it was "the rights to purchase". The estranged wife can alienate her own future interest in the tickets, but not her husband's.
Had the tickets in fact been wholly transferred, such that marmot44 owned the contract to buy the tickets each year and the married couple held nothing, then the court would have been limited to awarding the husband assets to make up for his share of the tickets sold by his wife. But that's not my understanding of what happened. From what was posted above the transfer was to occur season-by-season, which one would expect is because the contract for the tickets themselves is not transferable or because transfer would have been in violation of a restraining order imposed by the court during the parties' divorce proceedings that prohibited the alienation of joint assets.
Again, this happened during separation, and from what we have been told the contract for the tickets themselves remained an asset of the marital estate. To the extent that the wife cannot fulfill her part of the bargain, as she cannot give marmot44 the tickets in the years her husband has the right to the tickets under the divorce judgment, marmot44 can attempt to hold her liable for breach of contract.