My question involves an easement in the state of: Virginia
I recently purchased a piece of property that had a said right of way that was incorrect. Two separate Title Companies signed off on it and did not find the correct deeded right of way that was very specific to my lots. It was well thought out because there was effort to establish it as an Outstanding Right of Way with the National Forest Service and is recorded as so. Since it is an Outstanding Right of Way, there are no special use permits that I will have to apply for and the new road will be built without much interference from the Forest Service since it was granted prior to the acquisition of the property by the government. The right of way we were told that was to be used in the beginning is the most logical route but that argument has been laid to rest by the documentation that has been presented. One of the homeowners that was a plaintiff against me took issue because the prior owner granted a right of way through his land to the other property she owned. Although she owned his land at the time she had no right to issue an easement as she was granted a right of way from the first party and her being the second party could not legally grant it to a third party "to me". My proper right of way specifically addresses my lots in particular, but it still runs through the property of my neighbor who took issue before, this right of way being located on the opposite end of his and my property boundaries. We could and should have been granted a right of way by these folks of this subdivision, there are 20 homes on the 1.5 mile road and my neighbor behind me is going through this ordeal with me as we purchased the last three remaining lots about the same time. A right of way could have been granted to us but there were a few pricks in the neighborhood and I do not and will not beg for concessions from anyone.
This brings me to ask this question, when my right of way is constructed will my neighbor that gave me a lot of grief be able to use my new right of way since it crosses his property? The right of way specifically addresses my lots and it just so happens to still run over his land. The cost for this new right of way is going to be about $100,000 to construct and I am sure it will have some substantial costs to maintain since it will be a half mile road up the side of a mountain. I just have a feeling that the neighbor that caused all of this grief in the first place is going to claim that he has a right to use our road as well because it crosses about 50 feet of his property. Like I said he has a deeded right of way coming up the road where we were denied access to, will I be able to tell him he has no right of way on my right of way? Any help or guidance would be great, Thanks