My question involves employment and labor law for the state of: California My employer used to pay overtime after 8 hours after an employees shift started. They have recently changed their definition of workday to be 12am to 12am thus avoiding paying overtime after midnight since work would fall into two workdays. Does their practice of paying overtime after 8 hours after an employee's shift starts defacto defines the workday and does changing it to be 12am to 12am violate the law to avoid overtime?

