Not too sure, Im curious to hear and gain a bit of insight. I don't feel there were any sort of discrimination acts committed. I believe the conditions and commitment which was presented and ultimately agreed upon, was not fulfilled. My conclusion is based off comparing this to a business agreement in which contracts are broken and clauses or penalties are applied as a result. Although, there is a document signed by both, I don't believe it to be able to stand on its own, yet I do believe it can prove an implied agreement if I'm not mistaken, can offer protection. I may be talking out of my league but I'd really appreciate any comments from the experts here and come away informed instead of not doing anything about it.

