I was divorced 10 years ago and in the decree two unimproved lots (side by side) in a rural area of Florida -about 100 miles from where we resided were to be sold and the proceeds divided equally. These lots were given to me and my mom put them in both our names.
My ex has not attempted to sell the lots nor did she want them for herself and her new spouse when I offered them to her.
She has not paid any of the property taxes during the last 10 years ($404 including 2006's) NOR has she paid any of the yearly water bills during that period which is $80 per year ($800 NOT including 2006's bill).
She had said that since she didn't want this property that she saw no problem with me getting what little I could (tax assessor appriasal is $2,208) when I sold the property since she and her husband had no interest (I know verbal -nothing in writing).
NOW she is balking at the signing of a quit claim deed saying that she wants half of the proceeds of the sale.
Question is: is there any expiration of the terms on the divorce decree ("statute of limitations") as to the division of the proceeds, since the property wasn't sold in a 'timely manner' (my words), but is being sold 10 years later. Am I obligated to split the money from the sale of the property if there has been no sharing of the upkeep during the last 10 years?