My question involves a marriage in the state of: CA

My spouse and I are going to be starting the divorce process. We purchased a home about 3 years ago. I make considerably more than him and have been the one to make the mortgage payments, association dues, payments on the remodel loan, as well as drained my savings in additional remodel costs (we have always had separate bank accounts). The house has very little, if no equity. I would like him to just sign over the house to me, as I can continue to make payments and don't want to sell it, as we live near family and have children. He says he spoke to a lawyer. He's claiming that he is entitled to 50% of the house if I sell it, even if that's 20 years from now and i continue to pay for it the whole time. Or he says I can buy him out ( not sure how that is configured with no equity). ????