My question involves criminal law for the state of: California (but kind of a general question, really)
So, here's my understanding: Let's say my roommate, upon moving out, took my television worth $1300 (no question that it's mine; have receipts and everything). She then gave/sold it to someone (a friend, pawn shop, whatever). Upon being informed that it was stolen property, they would be required to return it to its lawful owner, right?
I'm assuming that is correct, from my knowledge of the law.
Now, here's the thing. My roommate didn't steal my television. She stole $1300 in cash that I had withdrawn earlier that day to pay the upcoming rent and other assorted bills. I have the receipts from the bank and there's no question that it was my money. She then gave it to an acquaintance of hers (it's iffy if she gave it to him for something, or to settle an old debt). However, it wasn't her money. It was mine. The police have a warrant out for her, but for some reason they're not bothering to return the stolen property (ie. my money) from the recipient. How is this right/fair????? I want my money back, and this guy got it straight from the thief who took it. How is that not possession of stolen property?!?!?!?!